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Which two options are supported Symantec End point Manager authentication types? (Select two.)

A. Microsoft Active Directory

B. MS-CHAP

C. RSA SecurID

D. Biometrics

E. Network Access Control

Answer: A, C

Which two considerations must an administrator make when enabling Application Learning in an environment? (Select two.)

A. Application Learning can generate increased false positives.

B. Application Learning should be deployed on a small group of systems in the enterprise.

C. Application Learning can generate significant CPU or memory use on a Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager.

D. Application Learning requires a file fingerprint list to be created in advance.

E. Application Learning is dependent on Insight.

Answer: B, C

Which task should an administrator perform to troubleshoot operation of the Symantec Endpoint Protection embedded database?

A. verify that dbsrv11.exe is listening on port 2638

B. check whether the MSSQLSERVER service is running

C. verify the sqlserver.exe service is running on port 1433

D. check the database transaction logs in X:Program FilesMicrosoft SQL server

Answer: A

Which action should an administrator take to prevent users from using Windows Security Center?

A. Set Disable antivirus alert within Windows Security Center to Disable

B. Set Disable Windows Security Center to Always

C. Set Disable Windows Security Center to Disable

D. Set Disable antivirus alert within Windows Security Center to Never

Answer: B

In which two areas can host groups be used? (Select two.)

A. Locations

B. Download Insight

C. IPS

D. Application and Device Control

E. Firewall

Answer: CE

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The web server is configured to listen for HTTP traffic on port 8080. The clients access the web server using the IP address 1.1.1.100 on TCP Port 80. The destination NAT rule is configured to translate both IP address and report to 10.1.1.100 on TCP Port 8080.

Which NAT and security rules must be configured on the firewall? (Choose two)

A. A security policy with a source of any from untrust-I3 Zone to a destination of 10.1.1.100 in dmz-I3 zone using web-browsing application

B. A NAT rule with a source of any from untrust-I3 zone to a destination of 10.1.1.100 in dmz-zone using service-http service.

C. A NAT rule with a source of any from untrust-I3 zone to a destination of 1.1.1.100 in untrust-I3 zone using service-http service.

D. A security policy with a source of any from untrust-I3 zone to a destination of 1.1.100 in dmz-I3 zone using web-browsing application.

Answer: CD

A company is upgrading its existing Palo Alto Networks firewall from version 7.0.1 to 7.0.4. Which three methods can the firewall administrator use to install PAN-OS 7.0.4 across the enterprise?( Choose three)

A. Download PAN-OS 7.0.4 files from the support site and install them on each firewall after manually uploading.

B. Download PAN-OS 7.0.4 to a USB drive and the firewall will automatically update after the USB drive is inserted in the firewall.

C. Push the PAN-OS 7.0.4 updates from the support site to install on each firewall.

D. Push the PAN-OS 7.0.4 update from one firewall to all of the other remaining after updating one firewall.

E. Download and install PAN-OS 7.0.4 directly on each firewall.

F. Download and push PAN-OS 7.0.4 from Panorama to each firewall.

Answer: A,E,F

Which command can be used to validate a Captive Portal policy?

A. eval captive-portal policy <criteria>

B. request cp-policy-eval <criteria>

C. test cp-policy-match <criteria>

D. debug cp-policy <criteria>

Answer: C

Which client software can be used to connect remote Linux client into a Palo Alto Networks Infrastructure without sacrificing the ability to scan traffic and protect against threats?

A. X-Auth IPsec VPN

B. GlobalProtect Apple IOS

C. GlobalProtect SSL

D. GlobalProtect Linux

Answer: A

How is the Forward Untrust Certificate used?

A. It issues certificates encountered on the Untrust security zone when clients attempt to connect to a site that has be decrypted/

B. It is used when web servers request a client certificate.

C. It is presented to clients when the server they are connecting to is signed by a certificate authority that is not trusted by firewall.

D. It is used for Captive Portal to identify unknown users.

Answer: C

A company is upgrading its existing Palo Alto Networks firewall from version 7.0.1 to 7.0.4.

Which three methods can the firewall administrator use to install PAN-OS 7.0.4 across the enterprise?( Choose three)

A. Download PAN-OS 7.0.4 files from the support site and install them on each firewall after manually uploading.

B. Download PAN-OS 7.0.4 to a USB drive and the firewall will automatically update after the USB drive is inserted in the firewall.

C. Push the PAN-OS 7.0.4 updates from the support site to install on each firewall.

D. Push the PAN-OS 7.0.4 update from one firewall to all of the other remaining after updating one firewall.

E. Download and install PAN-OS 7.0.4 directly on each firewall.

F. Download and push PAN-OS 7.0.4 from Panorama to each firewall.

Answer: A,E,F

How is the Forward Untrust Certificate used?

A. It issues certificates encountered on the Untrust security zone when clients attempt to connect to a site that has be decrypted/

B. It is used when web servers request a client certificate.

C. It is presented to clients when the server they are connecting to is signed by a certificate authority that is not trusted by firewall.

D. It is used for Captive Portal to identify unknown users.

Answer: A

The web server is configured to listen for HTTP traffic on port 8080. The clients access the web server using the IP address 1.1.1.100 on TCP Port 80. The destination NAT rule is configured to translate both IP address and report to 10.1.1.100 on TCP Port 8080. Which NAT and security rules must be configured on the firewall? (Choose two)

A. A security policy with a source of any from untrust-I3 Zone to a destination of 10.1.1.100 in dmz-I3 zone using web-browsing application

B. A NAT rule with a source of any from untrust-I3 zone to a destination of 10.1.1.100 in dmz-zone using service-http service.

C. A NAT rule with a source of any from untrust-I3 zone to a destination of 1.1.1.100 in untrust-I3 zone using service-http service.

D. A security policy with a source of any from untrust-I3 zone to a destination of 1.1.100 in dmz-I3 zone using web-browsing application.

Answer: A

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Jesse receives an email with an attachment labeled ¡°Court_Notice_21206.zip¡±. Inside the zip file is a file named ¡°Court_Notice_21206.docx.exe¡± disguised as a word document. Upon execution, a windows appears stating, ¡°This word document is corrupt.¡± In the background, the file copies itself to Jesse APPDATA\local directory and begins to beacon to a C2 server to download additional malicious binaries. What type of malware has Jesse encountered?

A. Trojan

B. Worm

C. Key-Logger

D. Micro Virus

Answer: A

In 2007, this wireless security algorithm was rendered useless by capturing packets and discovering the passkey in a matter of seconds. This security flaw led to a network invasion of TJ Maxx and data theft through a technique known wardriving.

Which algorithm is this referring to?

A. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)

B. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TRIP)

C. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA)

D. Wi-Fi Protected Access 2(WPA2)

Answer: A

A common cryptographically tool is the use of XOR. XOR the following binary value:

10110001

00111010

A. 10001011

B. 10011101

C. 11011000

D. 10111100

Answer: A

Which of the following is component of a risk assessment?

A. Logical interface

B. DMZ

C. Administrative safeguards

D. Physical security

Answer: C

Which of the following describes the characteristics of a Boot Sector Virus?

A. Overwrites the original MBR and only executes the new virus code

B. Modifies directory table entries so that directory entries point to the virus code instead of the actual program

C. Moves the MBR to another location on the hard disk and copies itself to the original location of the MBR

D. Moves the MBR to another location on the RAM and copies itself to the original location of the MBR

Answer: C

This international organization regulates billions of transactions daily and provides security guidelines to protect personally identifiable information (PII). These security controls provide a baseline and prevent low-level hackers sometimes known as script kiddies from causing a data breach.

Which of the following organizations is being described?

A. Payment Card Industry (PCI)

B. International Security Industry Organization (ISIO)

C. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)

D. Center for Disease Control (CDC)

Answer: B

In 2007, this wireless security algorithm was rendered useless by capturing packets and discovering the passkey in a matter of seconds. This security flaw led to a network invasion of TJ Maxx and data theft through a technique known wardriving. Which algorithm is this referring to?

A. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)

B. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TRIP)

C. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA)

D. Wi-Fi Protected Access 2(WPA2)

Answer: A

Which of the following describes the characteristics of a Boot Sector Virus?

A. Overwrites the original MBR and only executes the new virus code

B. Modifies directory table entries so that directory entries point to the virus code instead of

the actual program

C. Moves the MBR to another location on the hard disk and copies itself to the original location of the MBR

D. Moves the MBR to another location on the RAM and copies itself to the original location of the MBR

Answer: C

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The AppResponse Xpert module that supports following a user through a XenApp Server to the back-end tiers is called:

A.CX-Tracer

B.Xen Follower

C.Xen Tracker

D.Citrix Analysis Module

Answer: A

Which solution provides VoIP configuration management, testing, and remote control?

A.AppResponse Xpert

B.Unified Communications Xpert

C.AppMapper Xpert

D.AppTransaction Xpert

E.AppInternals Xpert

Answer: B

A DA is installed on an AppInternals Xpert monitored tier to collect metric data. What does the abbreviation "DA" stand for?

A.Data Adapter

B.Digital Analog

C.Data Acceptor

D.Data Agent

Answer: A

Which solutions enable a user to simultaneously view data from multiple AppResponse Xpert appliances? (Select 3)

A.AppResponse Xpert Director

B.Installed fat client on Windows

C.Riverbed performance management dashboards

D.AppSQL Xpert

E.It is impossible to view data from multiple appliances

F.Multiple tabs in the AppResponse Xpert desktop console

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22Which solutions are used to support Unified Communications? (Select 2)

A.AppTransaction Xpert

B.Unified Communications Xpert

C.AppResponse Xpert

D.AppInternals Xpert

E.AppResponse Xpert BrowserMetrix

Answer: BC

Which solution is used to discover applications on a network and monitor their response times?

A.AppTransaction Xpert

B.AppResponse Xpert

C.AppInternals Xpert

D.AppSensor Xpert

Answer: B

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In which step of the computer forensics investigation methodology would you run MD5 checksum on the evidence?

A. Obtain search warrant

B. Evaluate and secure the scene

C. Collect the evidence

D. Acquire the data

Answer: D

Network forensics allows Investigators to inspect network traffic and logs to identify and locate the attack system Network forensics can reveal: (Select three answers)

A. Source of security incidents’ and network attacks

B. Path of the attack

C. Intrusion techniques used by attackers

D. Hardware configuration of the attacker’s system

Answer: A, B, C

Windows Security Accounts Manager (SAM) is a registry file which stores passwords in a hashed format.SAM file in Windows is located at:

A. C:windowssystem32configSAM

B. C:windowssystem32conSAM

C. C:windowssystem32BootSAM

D. C:windowssystem32driversSAM

Answer: A

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What is the thick structural protein inside the sarcomere?

A. Actin

B. Myosin

C. Sarcoplasm

D. Sarcolemma

Answer: B

What is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the myofibril, causing tension development in a muscle?

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B. Calcium ions that bind to tropomyosin

C. Sodium ions that bind to troponin

D. Sodium ions that bind to tropomyosin

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Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.x for Exchange converts mail message attachments in order to ensure future proofing. Which file format is used?

A. .dvs

B. .xml

C. .html

D. .tif

Answer: C

What are two benefits of Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.x for Exchange? (Select two.)

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B. it facilitates faster backup of the messaging servers

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D. it automatically duplicates archive data

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How many document types can be converted by Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.x indexing?

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An administrator wants clients in a remote office to perform client-side deduplication instead of Media Server deduplication. Where should the administrator set the parameter in the Host Properties to ensure client-side deduplication is performed?

A. Master Server > Client Attributes > client_hostname > General > Always use client-side deduplication

B. Clients > General > Always use client-side deduplication

C. Master Server> Client Attributes> General> Always use client-side deduplication

D. Clients > Deduplication > Always use client-side deduplication

Answer: A

An administrator took Media Server, mediaA, offline for maintenance and set up a new Media Server, mediaB, with access to the previously backed up data. When restores are performed for data that was backed up by mediaA, the restores fail. Which setting in the Host Properties must the administrator modify to allow successful restores?

A. From the Master Server, run the bpimage command to change the name of the Media Server from mediaA to mediaB.

B. Verify both Media Servers are set up in the Media Server Host Properties > Restore Failover section.

C. In the BAR GUI, change the “Server to use for backup and restores” setting to MediaB.

D. Verify both Media Servers are set up in the Master Server Host Properties > Restore Failover section.

Answer: D

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A data center for example.com hosts several separate Web applications. Users authenticate with all of them by providing their Active Directory (AD) login credentials. You do not have access to Example, Inc.’s AD server. Your solution must do the following:

– provide single sign-on (SSO) for all protected Web applications

– prevent login brute forcing

– scan FTPS connections to the Web servers for exploits

– scan Webmail for OWASP Top 10 vulnerabilities such as session cookie hijacking, XSS, and SQL injection attacks

Which solution meets these requirements?

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B. Deploy FortiDDos to block brute force attacks. Configure FortiGate to forward only FTPS, HTTP, and HTTPS to FortiWeb. Configure FortiWeb to query the AD server, and apply SSO for Web requests. Also

configure it to scan FTPS and Web traffic, then forward allowed traffic to the Web servers.

C. Use FortiGate to authenticate and proxy HTTP/HTTPS; to verify credentials, FortiGate queries the AD server. Also configure FortiGate to scan FTPS before forwarding, and to mitigate SYN floods. Configure FortiWeb to block Web attacks.

D. Install FSSO Agent on servers. Configure FortiGate to inspect FTPS. FortiGate will forward FTPS, HTTP, and HTTPS to FortiWeb. FortiWeb must block Web attacks, then forward all traffic to the Web servers.

Answer: D

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How can an administrator determine the storage and database paths for a Media Server Deduplication Pool?

A.run the Configure Disk Storage Server wizard for the MSDP

B.view Storage Unit > View Properties for the MSOP storage unit

C.view Disk Pool > Disk volumes for the MSDP disk pool

D.view Storage Server > Properties for the storage server

Answer: C

An administrator needs to store secure tape copies of protected data to an offsite location. How can the administrator automatically eject tape media daily and create detailed reports?

A. encrypt the tapes using software encryption and use a storage lifecycle policy to perform automatic ejects and create reports

B. enable the encryption attribute on the vault policy to perform automated ejects and create reports

C. use tape drives that support hardware encryption and use a vault policy to perform automated ejects and create reports

D. use tape drives that support hardware encryption and use a storage lifecycle policy to perform automated ejects and create reports

Answer: C

Some NetBackup jobs are affected by the failure of a disk in an Advanced Disk pool, but the jobs are unavailable to view in the Activity Monitor.In which two places can the administrator view Net Backup jobs affected by the disk failure? (Select two.)

A.Media and Device Management > Device Monitor > Disk Pool

B.Net Backup Management > Reports > Disk Reports > Disk logs

C.Net Backup Management > Reports > Disk Reports > Disk Pool Status

D.Net Backup Management > Reports > Disk Reports > Disk Storage Unit Status

E.Net Backup Management > Reports > Media Logs

Answer: AD

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