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Share some 9i Internet Application Developer 1Z0-146 exam questions and answers below.
Which two reports can be retrieved by using the various procedures in the DBMS_METADATA PL/SQL package? (Choose two.)

A. DDL report for all objects dependent on a table

B. DDL report for all the objects stored in a tablespace

C. DDL report for all the invalidated objects in a schema

D. data definition language (DDL) report for all the tables in a schema

Answer: AD

25.Which two statements are true about the context of an application? (Choose two.)

A. It is attached to a session.

B. It is owned by the user SYS.

C. A user can change the context of his or her application.

D. The PL/SQL package associated with the context must exist before the context is created.

E. The predefined attributes in the USERENV application context can be changed as per the requirements.

Answer: AB

Which two statements are true about associative arrays and varrays? (Choose two.)

A. Only varrays must start with the subscript 1.

B. Only varrays can be used as column types in database tables.

C. Both associative arrays and varrays must start with the subscript 1.

D. Both associative arrays and varrays can be used as column types in database tables.

Answer: AB

The database instance was recently started up. Examine the following parameter settings for the database instance:

NAME TYPE VALUE

———————————— ———– —————————-

result_cache_max_result integer 5

result_cache_max_size big integer 0

result_cache_mode string MANUAL

result_cache_remote_expiration integer 0

………

You reset the value for the result_cache_max_size parameter by issuing the following command:

SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET result_cache_max_size = 1056k SCOPE = BOTH;

System altered.

Which statement is true in this scenario?

A. 1056 KB is allocated for the result cache and the result cache is enabled.

B. 1056 KB is allocated for the result cache, but the result cache is disabled.

C. The results for only the queries that have the RESULT_CACHE hint are cached.

D. The results for all the queries except those having the NO_RESULT_CACHE hint are cached.

Answer: B

Examine the following settings for a session:

PLSQL_CODE_TYPE = NATIVE

PLSQL_OPTIMIZE_LEVEL = 3

Which statement would be true in this scenario?

A. The compiler would automatically inline subprograms.

B. The compiler would inline the code for external subroutines.

C. The compiler would inline the code even if the INLINE pragma is set to NO.

D. The compiler would not inline the code unless the INLINE pragma is set to YES.

Answer: A

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Which statement describes the purpose of the plshprof command?

A. It produces HTML output from raw profiler output.

B. It produces HTML output from profiler tables in the database.

C. It populates profiler tables in the database from raw profiler output.

D. It populates profiler tables in the database from raw profiler output.

Answer: A

Which two statements are true about SecureFile LOB options? (Choose two.)

A. The COMPRESSION HIGH option can be enabled only for CLOBs.

B. The COMPRESSION HIGH option can be enabled for all internal LOBs.

C. The DECRYPT option can be used to remove encryption only if the LOB column is empty.

D. The DECRYPT option can be used to remove encryption from LOB columns that are empty or contain data.

Answer: BD

Which two types of query results cannot be stored in the query result cache?

(Choose two.)

A. subquery results

B. results of a query having the SYSDATE function

C. results of a query having the GROUP BY clause

D. results of a query having the DATE data type in the WHERE clause

Answer: AB

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Share some Oracle Database 1Z0-071 exam questions and answers below.
Which statements are true? (Choose all that apply.)

A. The data dictionary is created and maintained by the database administrator.

B. The data dictionary views can consist of joins of dictionary base tables and user-defined tables.

C. The usernames of all the users including the database administrators are stored in the data dictionary.

D. The USER_CONS_COLUMNS view should be queried to find the names of the columns to which a constraint applies.

E. Both USER_OBJECTS and CAT views provide the same information about all the objects that are owned by the user.

F. Views with the same name but different prefixes, such as DBA, ALL and USER, use the same base tables from the data dictionary

Answer: C,D,F

Which statement is true regarding external tables?

A. The default REJECT LIMIT for external tables is UNLIMITED.

B. The data and metadata for an external table are stored outside the database.

C. ORACLE_LOADER and ORACLE_DATAPUMP have exactly the same functionality when used with an external table.

D. The CREATE TABLE AS SELECT statement can be used to unload data into regular table in the database from an external table.

Answer: D

Which two statements are true regarding the COUNT function? (Choose two.)

A. COUNT(*) returns the number of rows including duplicate rows and rows containing NULL value in any of the columns

B. COUNT(cust_id) returns the number of rows including rows with duplicate customer IDs and NULL value in the CUST_ID column

C. COUNT(DISTINCT inv_amt) returns the number of rows excluding rows containing duplicates and NULL values in the INV_AMT column

D. A SELECT statement using COUNT function with a DISTINCT keyword cannot have a WHERE clause

E. The COUNT function can be used only for CHAR, VARCHAR2 and NUMBER data types

Answer: A,C

Which two statements are true regarding the GROUP BY clause in a SQL statement? (Choose two.)

A. You can use column alias in the GROUP BY clause.

B. Using the WHERE clause after the GROUP BY clause excludes the rows after creating groups.

C. The GROUP BY clause is mandatory if you are using an aggregate function in the SELECT clause.

D. Using the WHERE clause before the GROUP BY clause excludes the rows before creating groups.

E. If the SELECT clause has an aggregate function, then those individual columns without an aggregate function in the SELECT clause should be included in the GROUP BY clause.

Answer: D,E

Which two statements are true about sequences created in a single instance database? (Choose two.)

A. CURRVAL is used to refer to the last sequence number that has been generated

B. DELETE <sequencename> would remove a sequence from the database

C. The numbers generated by a sequence can be used only for one table

D. When the MAXVALUE limit for a sequence is reached, you can increase the MAXVALUE limit by using the ALTER SEQUENCE statement

E. When a database instance shuts down abnormally, the sequence numbers that have been cached but not used would be available once again when the database instance is restarted

Answer: A,D

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The mpstat output from OS Watcher shows a database node as being 90% idle on an average. What would you do to get a full picture of CPU utilization on the entire Exadata RAC cluster?

A.Average the mpstat id1 output from all the nodes.

B.Ask application users if they have noticed a slowdown in screen response.

C.Look for an increase in batch job servicing times.

D.A & B above

Answer: A

Which is the best location to point your customer to, for finding the latest Exadata patches?

A.owner’s guide

B.Patch database in MyOracle Support

C.MyOracle Support note 888828.1

D.MyOracle Support for database patches, ULN for OS patches, and Sun Support for Server and InfiniBand patches.

Answer: C

Identify three best practices for applying asmdeactivationoutcome es on Exadata Database Servers and Exadata Storage Servers?

A.Backing up database servers and storage cells is not recommended before performing planned maintenance.

B.Database server updates can be rolled back using the the ¡°yum downgrade" procedure.

C.Bundle patches do not require testing before being installed on a production system.

D.It is recommended that Exadata systems with Data Guard configured use the "Standby First" patching approach.

E.Patching should never be interrupted due to a connection drop. It is therefore recommended that you use VNC or the screen utility.

F.Before patching cells in a rolling manner, you must check asmdeactivationoutcome amModestatus and make sure that cells on all disks are online and that disks can be deactivated.

Answer: D, E, F

Exadata Database Machine offers an Intelligent Platform Management Interface for the various components in the Exadata product. Which option is true?

A.IPMI can be used to remotely start and stop servers.

B.IPMI can be used to remotely log in to the operating system.

C.IPMI commands can be executed by using SNMP traps.

D.IPMI settings can be secured by backing up the Oracle Linux installation on the storage system.

Answer: A

Which two DML operations will add rows compressed by Hybrid Columnar Compression (HCC) to a table that is created to use HCC?

A.INSERT

B.insert with an append hint

C.UPDATE

D.CREATE TABLE AS SELECT

Answer: B, D

Identify three Exadata Storage Server software processes and their purpose?

A.CELLSRV: The Cell Server is responsible for servicing disk I/O and predicate processing offload.

B.CELLSRV: The Cell Server is responsible for balancing workload to other storage servers.

C.MS: The Management Server is responsible for storage cell management and configuration.

D.MS: The Management Server is responsible for starting a local Enterprise Manager agent.

E.RS: The Restart Server is responsible for Automatic Storage Management (ASM) instance restart.

F.RS: The Restart Server is responsible for CELLSRV and MS monitoring and restart.

Answer: A, C, F

Consider the following software changes that are performed manually on a Linux server:

1. Changes for Linux kernel firewall configuration

2. Changes for custom performance monitoring tools

3. Changes for security scan tools

4. Changes for Linux system performance optimization

Which of the software changes listed are permitted on Exadata Storage Servers?

A.1, 2, 3, and 4

B.only 3

C.none

D.only 2

E.only 1 and 2

F.only 2 and 3

Answer: C

Consider the following setup:

User A1 belongs to resource group High on Database A.

User B2 belongs to resource group Low on Database B.

User C3 is a user on Database C without any DBRM setup.

DBRM setup:

Database A: Resource group High gets 80% and Low gets 20%.

Database B: Resource group High gets 60% and Low gets 40%.

IORM setup:

Database A: Share=20, limit=5

Database B: Share=30, limit=10

Database C: 5 shares

Total number of shares in the IORM setup = 100

What percent of I/O will each database user theoretically be using when the Exadata storage unit I/O throughout is used 100% and no other databases but A, B, and C are running?

A.Al = 36%, B2=18%, and C3=9%

B.Al = 33%, B2=33%, and C3=33%

C.AI = 10%, B2=5%, and C3=20%

D.Al = 8%, B2=12%, and C3=5%

E.Al = 5%, B2=10%, and C3=85%

Answer: E

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Share some Software as a Service – Oracle Enterprise Resource Planning Cloud 1Z0-963 exam questions and answers below.
Your customer wants toconfigure three business units (BUs) as follows: Identify the correct configuration.

A. The US Header BU needs to be configured as a Payables Payment Service Provider.

B. The US West BU needs to be configuredas a Customer Payments Service Provider.

C. The US East BU and US West BU need to be configured as Payables Payment Service Provider.

D. The US East BU needs to be configured as a Payables Payment Service Provider.

Answer: D

What is the difference between Prospective and Spend authorized suppliers?

A. Prospective suppliers can participate in Sourcing activities only, whereas Spend authorized suppliers can participate in all Procure-to-Pay activities.

B. Prospective suppliers arelimited to sourcing and qualification activities, whereas Spend authorized suppliers are limited to purchase orders and agreements.

C. Prospective suppliers are limited to purchase orders, whereas both purchase order and agreement can be created for Spendauthorized suppliers.

D. Prospective suppliers are suggested by internal users, whereas Spend authorized suppliers are registered externally.

Answer: B

Your customer wants toconfigure three business units (BUs) as follows:

Identify the correct configuration.

A. The US Header BU needs to be configured as a Payables Payment Service Provider.

B. The US West BU needs to be configuredas a Customer Payments Service Provider.

C. The US East BU and US West BU need to be configured as Payables Payment Service Provider.

D. The US East BU needs to be configured as a Payables Payment Service Provider.

Answer: D

An organization has initiated a campaign for energy conservation and wants all its suppliers to declare their carbon emissions. The Qualification manager is asked to create an initiative to collect the information and the certificates from suppliers.

Identify the method to create a qualification area without any defined outcome for this requirement.

A. Create questions. Create and add the questions to a qualification area, but do not select the ¡°Information only¡± check box.

B. Create questions, but do not select ¡°Response required¡± and ¡°Critical question¡±. Createand add questions to a qualification area.

C. Create questions, but do not select ¡°Response required¡±. Create and add questions to a qualification area, but do not select the ¡°Information only¡± check box.

D. Create questions. Create and add the questionsto a qualification area and select the ¡°Information only¡± check box.

Answer: D

Five requisition lines of a single requisition document are available to process on to purchase order. But the buyer returned one requisition line to the requester for quantity modification.What will be the effect of this action on the remaining four requisition lines?

A. They will be put on hold until the requester resubmits the returned line with the correct quantity.

B. They will also get returned to the requester.

C. They will be in the “withdrawn” status.

D. They will be available to process on to purchaseorder.

E. They will get canceled.

Answer: A

Identify two profile options that are required to configure Punchout Catalogs in Self Service Procurement.

A. PO_DOC_BUILDER_DEFAULT_DOC_TYPE

B. PO_DEFAULT_PRC_BU

C. POR_DISPLAY_EMBEDDED_ANALYTICS

D. POR_PROXY_SERVER_NAME

E. POR_PROXY_SERVER_PORT

Answer: D,E

Name the Oracle Transactional Business Intelligence (OTBI) KPI that indicates the count of approved requisitions where at least one of the requisition lines is assigned to the new buyer who has logged in and that requisition line is not implemented into an order, bucketed by the number of days elapsed since the requisition was approved.

A. Requisition Lines Cycle Time

B. Requisition Aging Count

C. Requisition Line Aging Count

D. Requisition Lines Volume Count

E. Requisition Lines in Process Count

Answer: E

Your customer is a global company and has multiple legal entities across countries:

They have the following requirements:

Identify three applicable setups in Oracle Procurement Cloud to fulfill these requirements:

A. Set up the Default Legal Entity on the Configure Requisitioning Business Process page.

B. Define a primary route on financial orchestration flow to enforce the sold-to legal entity on a PO.

C. Set up the ¡°Multiple Legal Entities on Order¡± value to ¡°Allow¡± on the Configure Requisitioning Business Process page.

D. Create Profit Center BU to Party Relationships.

E. Set up the default procurement business unit for Default Legal Entity in Manage Purchasing Profile Options.

Answer: B,D,E

While configuring offerings, you had deselected the ¡°Supply Chain Financial Orchestration of Procurement Flows¡± check box and had locked the feature. However, because of changes in the business requirements, you are required to enable the feature.

Identify the prerequisite step to perform this change.

A. Set the implementation status to ¡°In Progress¡± of the Procurement Offering.

B. Deselect the ¡°Enable for Implementation¡± check box of the Procurement Offering.

C. Change the Provisioned to ¡°No¡± of the Procurement Offering.

D. Navigate to the ¡°Select Feature Choices¡± page of the Procurement Offering and unlock the feature.

Answer: B

During implementation, the transformation maps that are associated with external facing interfaces must be modified to map the _____.

A. extensible flexfield attributes to the enterprise business objectattributes

B. extensible flexfield attributes to the fulfillment order line

C. enterprise business object attributes to the fulfillment order line

D. fulfillment order line to the extensible flexfield attributes

Answer: A

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You are in the process of setting up a constraint that prohibits update to an extensible flexfield in a fulfillment line if Ship From Warehouse is X and the fulfillment line is booked. You are able to see the extensible flexfield on the ¡°Manage Constraint Entities¡± page but not on the ¡°Manage Processing Constraints¡± page.

What could be the reason?

A. The ¡°generate packages¡± program was not submitted.

B. The ¡°Publish extensible flexfield¡± process was not run.

C. The extensible flexfield is not enabled.

D. A ¡°Record Set¡±needs to be created for the extensible flexfield to be visible on the ¡°ManageProcessing Constraints¡± page.

Answer: D

Identify the Order Management configuration setup that must be performed by a system administrator in order to define an external source system connector.

A. The source system needs to be called by using the web service from Cloud Order Management.

B. The source system links needs to be registered in Manage Web Service.

C. The connector service needs to be registered by using Manage Web Service.

D. The source system needs to be registered in Manage Web Service.

Answer: C

Identify the task that the seeded Warehouse Operator role can perform.

A. monitor and release sales orders for picking in the warehouse

B. search for a pick slip and confirm it

C. process and confirm outbound shipments

D. generate outboundshipping documentation

E. generate pick slips for picking material for outbound material movement

Answer: C

Identify two tasks that are used to set up statuses in the orchestration process configuration in the Functional Setup Manager. (Choose two.)

A. Manage Orchestration Status Values

B. Manage Task Status Condition

C. Manage Status Values

D. Manage Orchestration Status

Answer: B,D

Your company has a cost of change policy that changes a customer when the order is allocated, with no changes allowed after the goods are staged.

Which fulfillment status will trigger compensation and impose charges on the customer when the sales order quantity is changed?

A. Backordered

B. Ready to Release

C. Released to Warehouse

D. Staged

Answer: A

Your company wants to default the preferred fulfillment warehouse and scheduled ship date as order requested date during order import and skip the scheduling task for a particular order type.

What are the two business rules that must be configured to achieve this requirement? (Choose two.)

A. Define a branching condition rule.

B. Define a lead time expression rule.

C. Define a line selection criteria rule for the scheduling task.

D. Define acompensation pattern rule.

E. Define a pre-transformation defaulting rule.

Answer: A,C

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Share some Platform as a Service (PaaS) 1Z0-500 exam questions and answers below.
A customer wants to compare, trend, and forecast weekday WebLogic Heap usage to weekend usage.

How should you configure IT Analytics to perform and display that analysis?

A. Create two separate targets on Enterprise Manager Cloud Control, one collecting data only for weekends and other only on weekdays.

B. Perform a weekday analysis and then a weekend analysis, then overlay them in Excel.

C. Use a Seasonal Filter for the relevant days in the time series.

D. From the IT Analytics display, navigate to the Administration page and configure target collectors to perform seasonal data harvesting.

Answer: A

Which component must be allowed connectivity to the Internet to communicate with the Oracle Cloud?

A. Cloud Agent

B. Enterprise Manager Agent

C. Data Collector

D. Gateway

Answer: D

Which two steps should you perform before deploying an Oracle Management Cloud service? (Choose two.)

A. Review entities in Cloud Framework repository.

B. Download master installed from Oracle Cloud.

C. Configure a data collector.

D. Installer gateways.

E. Review Oracle Management Cloud documentation on ORACLE.COM.

F. Review Oracle Management Cloud Master Notes on MyOracleSupport.

Answer: B,D

Which two steps should you perform before deploying an Oracle Management Cloud service? (Choose two.)

A. Review entities in Cloud Framework repository.

B. Download master installed from Oracle Cloud.

C. Configure a data collector.

D. Installer gateways.

E. Review Oracle Management Cloud documentation on ORACLE.COM.

F. Review Oracle Management Cloud Master Notes on MyOracleSupport.

Answer: B,D

What should you perform before exploration of log data in the Log Analytics service?

A. Mask log data.

B. Enable Oracle out-of-box or custom log sources to add data.

C. Configure a generic parser.

D. Enabled all Oracle out-of-box sources to add data.

E. Create a log parser.

Answer: B

When diagnosing a server response time issue using the Application Performance Monitoring service, what is the smallest sample period that you can select to display?

A. Last day

B. Last 6 hours

C. Last 60 mins

D. Last 15 mins

E. Last 10 mins

F. Last 1 min

Answer: E

When diagnosing a server response time issue using the Application Performance Monitoring service, what is the smallest sample period that you can select to display?

A. Last day

B. Last 6 hours

C. Last 60 mins

D. Last 15 mins

E. Last 10 mins

F. Last 1 min

Answer: E

Which Oracle Management Cloud component requires SSH and SQL access to the Oracle Enterprise Manager repository database?

A. APM Agent

B. Cloud Agent

C. Data Collector

D. Gateway

Answer: A

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Upon migration to Oracle Database 12c, a customer asked that monitoring at an individual database

level be disabled in favor of database performance monitoring consolidated and centralized across their

enterprise.

Which are two actions you would take to meet the customer’s requirements?

A. Disable Oracle Enterprise Manager Database Express by setting the HTTP Port to 0.

B. For the always active Oracle Enterprise Manager Database Express process, create a script that will

disable that process upon database boot.

C. Using the appropriate architecture implement Oracle Enterprise Manager.

D. Delete the “express” directory in Oracle Home to disable Oracle Enterprise Manager Database

Express.

E. Changes permissions of the “express” directory to real only by root.

F. Enable SNMP and configure MIBS on each database and forward database monitoring SNMP traps.

Answer: B,E

For which one would you use an index fast full scan to improve performance?

A. a query having all the columns of an index in the where clause

B. a query that does not need to access table rows

C. a query that needs to access table rows along with an index

D. a column in an index that is compressed

Answer: A

Explanation:

All of the columns required by SQL must reside in the index tree; that is, all columns in the SELECT and

WHERE clauses must exist in the index. Reference:

http://www.dba-oracle.com/t_index_fast_full_scan.htm

Which two would automatically create an entry in V$SQL_MONITOR?

A. a parallelized SQL statement

B. any SQL statement run

C. any DML statement

D. a statement that consumes at least 1 second of CPU or I/O time.

E. a statement that consumes at least 5 second of CPU or I/O time.

F. any DDL statement

Answer: C,F

Explanation:

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/TGSQL/tgsql_monit.htm#TGSQL789

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You are required to change the Data Guard Configuration protection mode from MAXPERFORMANCE to MAXAVAJLABILITY using Enterprise Manager Cloud Control. Which two are true about this change?

A.If the primary database cannot write its redo to at least one synchronized standby database, then the protection level remains unchanged.

B.The primary database instance will remain up and running, if it cannot write redo to at least one synchronized standby database.

C.Transactions will not commit until all redo data needed to recover those transactions are written to the online redo log, and to the standby redo log on at least one synchronizes standby database.

D. Fast start failover can be enabled when making the chance.

E. Real time apply will be automatically turned on.

Answer: BC

Which four database parameters might be affected by or influence the creation of standby databases?

A.DB_NAME

B.ARCHIVE_LAG_TARGET

C.COMPATIBLE

D.DB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT

E.DB_UNIQUE_NAME

F.FAL_SERVER

G.STANDBY_ARCH1VE_DEST

Answer: A, D, E, F

You must configure an Oracle Data Guard environment consisting of:

1. A primary database

2 Three Physical Standby Databases

You must meet these requirements:

A designated physical standby database should become the primary database automatically whenever the primary database falls

The chosen protection mode should provide the highest level of protection possible without violating the other requirement

Which redo transport mode and protection mode would you configure to meet these requirements?

A.SYNC NOAFFRIM and Maximum Protection

B.SYNC NOAFFIRM and Maximum Availability

C.ASYNC and Maximum Performance

D.SYNC AFFIRM and Maximum Availability

E.SYNC AFFIRM and Maximum Protection

Answer: D

Which four database parameters might be affected by or influence the creation of standby databases?

A.DB_NAME

B.ARCHIVE_LAG_TARGET

C.COMPATIBLE

D.DB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT

E.DB_UNIQUE_NAME

F.FAL_SERVER

G.STANDBY_ARCH1VE_DEST

Answer: A, D, E, F

Examine the Data Guard configuration:

DGMGRL> show configuration;

Configuration -Animals Protection Mode MaxAvailability

Databases

dogs- Primary database

cats- Snapshot standby database

sheep- Snapshot standby database

Fast-Start Failover DISABLED

Configuration Status: ORA-01034: ORACLE not available ORA-16625: cannot reach database "dogs’1 DGM-17017 unable to determine configuration status

You wish to perform a failover to Sheep

Which command, or sequence of commands, should you issue to the broker before executing "failover to sheep", using the broker?

A.DGMGRL> convert database cats to physical standby,

B.DGMGRL> convert database sheep to physical standby;

C.DGMGRL> convert database sheep to physical standby; DGMGRL> convert database cats to physical standby;

D.DGMGRL>edit configuration set protection mode as maxperformance; DGMGRL> convert database sheep to physical standby;

E.None, because you can directly failover to a Snapshot Standby Database

Answer: C

Examine the Data Guard configuration:

DGMGRL> show configuration

Configuration -Animals

Protection Mode: MaxAvailability

Databases:

dogs- Primary database

sheep- (*) Physical standby database

cats- Physical standby database

Fast-Start Failover: ENABLED

Configuration Status: SUCCESS

What happens if you issue "switchover" to sheep;" at the DGMGRL prompt?

A.The switchover succeeds but Dogs need to be reinstated

B.The switchover succeeds but Fast-Start Failover is suspended.

C.The switchover succeeds and Cats become the new failover target.

D.The switchover succeeds and Dogs become the new failover target

E.it results in an error indicating that a switchover is not allowed.

Answer: D

Your Data Guard environment has two remote physical standby databases. Client applications use the local naming method to connect to the primary database instance.You want applications to automatically connect to the new primary database instance in case of a switchover or a failover. Which will fulfill this requirement?

A.Create a database service on each standby database that is started automatically by a trigger, when the database rote is PRIMARY, modify the connection description used by client applications to include all the standby hosts and connect to the database instance using that service name.

B.Create a database service on the primary database that is started automatically by a trigger, when the database role is PRIMARY, modify the connection descriptors used by client applications to include all the standby hosts and connect to the database instance using that service name.

C.Set the INSTANCE_NAME parameter identically on all databases; modify the connection descriptor on client applications to include all the standby hosts and connect to the database instance using that service name.

D.Set the DB_NAME and DB_UNIQUE_NAME identical on all databases, modify the connection descriptors on client applications to include all the standby hosts and connect to the database using that service name.

Answer: A

Examine the Data Guard configuration:

DGMGRL > show configuration;

Configuration-Animals

Protection Mode MaxPerformance

Databases

dogs-Primary database sheep-Snapshot standby database cats-Snapshot standby database

Fast-Start Failover: DISABLED

Configuration Status: SUCCESS

You receive an error while attempting to raise the protection mode to Maximum Availability:

DGMGDRL> edit configuration set protection mode as max availability;

Error ORA-16627 operation disallowed since no standby databases would remain to support protection mode Failed.

Identify two statements that you can execute, either one of which will enable successful raising of the protection mode to Maximum Availability.

A.DGMGRL> convert database sheep to physical standby;

B.DGMGRL> convert database cats to physical standby;

C.DGMGRL> edit database dogs set property LogXptMode= fastsync;

D.DGMGRL> edit database sheep set property LogXptMode= fastsync;

E.DGMGRL> edit database cats set property LogXptMode= sync;

Answer: B, E

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